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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 22.06.2025 07:16

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Should Pete Rose's record as the all-time hits leader be recognized and celebrated?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why is Harry Sisson such a whiny hypocrite? He complained about President Trump going to the Super Bowl "costing millions of taxpayers' dollars," but not a word when Taylor Swift, another multimillionaire, did the same thing.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Were there any friendly fire incidents involving American submarines, aircraft carriers, or battleships during World War II or World War I?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.